Cameron’s wrong: the government’s money does not belong to taxpayers

Posted on

According to the Guardian, David Cameron will today "repeat Margaret Thatcher's mantra that there is no such thing as government money — only taxpayers' money."

This is an interesting idea, largely because it is completely wrong but also because of the status it has been given by those seeking to diminish the role of the government.

Let's consider firstly why the claim is wrong. One of the simplest ways to prove this is to simply go and ask for your share of the money back. Oddly, given what Cameron is saying, you will not find that there is any part of thegovernment's money that is earmarked as yours. That, of course, is because none is.

Second, try not paying what the government thinks you owe it and see what happens. Assuming there are staff still in the relevant HMRC office you will find they will firstly take a dim view of your approach and will secondly begin legal proceedings to recover the sum you owe. Any defence that you offer along the lines that the Prime Minister says that the government only hastaxpayers' money will not help you; you will discover that the law thinks that what David Cameron is saying is yours very definitely belongs to the government.

That, of course, as a matter of fact, is true. The law of property is created in this country in exactly the same way that the law of tax is created: parliament considers a matter and passes an Act and it becomes law. And parliament has decreed time and again that if you earn certain forms of income (most of them, in fact), buy many goods and services, own, dispose of or gift certain assets (even if involuntarily on death), move some things out of the UK or transfer your right to do many of these things to a company, trust of partnership then you will pay tax in some form or other, subject to any allowances or reliefs it too has chosen to give.

This means that the fact is, as I have often argued, that you actually do not ever have an unimpeded right to that part of your income that you owe in tax. That said, you may have the legal right to claim, in some situations such as when in self employment, the full sum owing to you by a customer out of which tax will be paid. If you're an employee you don't even have that right: you can only claim your income after tax has been deducted at source. But the reality is that the self-employed person (or company) is really in exactly the same boat, as is shown to be the case if VAT charged is part of the sum due by the customer. In that case the self-employed person has the absolute right to recover the full sum due to them, including by suing for it if need be, but that never makes the VAT their property. They always collected that for the government and that is to whom it belongs.

The same is true of the income tax (or corporation tax) that the self employed person owes to the government. This money never belonged to the taxpayer. It always belonged to the government and the lability to pay it always existed, even if the precise amount could not be certain at the time it was received. The taxpayer could of course have spent it all, and some rather unwisely do, but bankruptcy courts tend to beckon those who go down this route.

The simple fact is then that you only ever have a legal entitlement to your income (and any other property you own, come to that) after the tax due as a result of the process of acquiring or owning or using it has been paid. It's your net income after tax that you own; the rest very definitely belongs to the government. If is partly because we all innately know that is the case that we find tax cheats so offensive.

So why will David Cameron so blatantly misrepresent the truth today? Does he really not understand the rights of the organisation he heads? Or is it that he is being deliberately misleading?

I very strongly suspect that Cameron is, like Thatcher before him, spinning a deliberate falsehood for political reasons. So what is he trying to say?

First he is suggesting the insignificance of government. It 'has no money of its own; its a nothing'.

Second, he's breeding resentment: 'the government's got your money'.

Third, he's trying to undermine the supply of services by the government: 'you could spend this money better'. It is odd how this changed in the face of flooding but has now been forgotten again.

Fourth, he is, of course, arguing against redistribution by the government: 'it's your money the government gives away to benefit scroungers' is the sinister message he is making.

And he is undermining the collective responsibility of democracy: 'take back what is yours' he is saying instead.

This is cynical manipulation. It's just not true. And maybe someone should challenge him on it. They could start with a very basic point. Hand him a fiver and ask whose it is? Who created that note? Who protects its value? Who enforces any claim to its ownership by an individual? Who demands it be accepted a legal tender? No individual does any of those things: the government does. In that case the taxpayer's money only exists because of government action.

So whose money is it? Cameron's claim is bizarre.

It's ad wrong, of course, as it would be for him to say he is not democratically accountable for the good stewardship of government funds for which he must be held responsible. But that's a very different claim indeed.

 


Thanks for reading this post.
You can share this post on social media of your choice by clicking these icons:

You can subscribe to this blog's daily email here.

And if you would like to support this blog you can, here: